George I of Greece earned his position following an election in 1862, when he (taking Wikipedia's numbers as correct, even though they're not self-consistent) received six votes out of 241,202, which isn't a very high percentage. However, everyone who got more was rendered ineligible by international pressure or by not actually being people.
George I wasn't the only man to receive only a few votes--there were several more, such as Giuseppe Garibaldi (who got 3), who weren't forbidden via a close relationship with a Great Power's royal house. I think, in such a close election, the idea of four more Garibaldi* votes showing up somewhere is a reasonable POD with interesting, far-reaching consequences, depending on how much stock the Great Powers put in the referendum. Looking at what happened IOTL, it seems that George I won the throne as a consequence of winning the election, once Windsors, Bonapartes, Orléanses, Romanovs, and their in-laws were discounted, but that may be a coincidence.
*Would he accept kingship, anyway?
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For an alternative, somewhat less plausible scenario, consider what sort of seven-vote swing some charismatic San Franciscan could promote...
George I wasn't the only man to receive only a few votes--there were several more, such as Giuseppe Garibaldi (who got 3), who weren't forbidden via a close relationship with a Great Power's royal house. I think, in such a close election, the idea of four more Garibaldi* votes showing up somewhere is a reasonable POD with interesting, far-reaching consequences, depending on how much stock the Great Powers put in the referendum. Looking at what happened IOTL, it seems that George I won the throne as a consequence of winning the election, once Windsors, Bonapartes, Orléanses, Romanovs, and their in-laws were discounted, but that may be a coincidence.
*Would he accept kingship, anyway?
-----
For an alternative, somewhat less plausible scenario, consider what sort of seven-vote swing some charismatic San Franciscan could promote...