Given Bavaria was pro-French for much of the Revolutionary and Napoleonic Wars (mostly for pragmatic reasons), how likely would it be for it to end up smaller than IOTL following the Congress of Vienna? Assume Napoleon still gets defeated, more or less per IOTL, if that helps.
Saxony was trimmed down due to not jumping ship quickly enough.
Obviously, Bavaria lost Salzburg and Tyrol (including Vorarlberg) to Austria IOTL.
Would it be possible for Bavaria to, say, not receive any additional territory other than getting the Palatinate back in exchange for giving Salzburg to Austria? Would it be possible for it to lose any more territory than it did IOTL?
How might this affect the territories everyone else receives in the Congress of Vienna?
Saxony was trimmed down due to not jumping ship quickly enough.
Obviously, Bavaria lost Salzburg and Tyrol (including Vorarlberg) to Austria IOTL.
Would it be possible for Bavaria to, say, not receive any additional territory other than getting the Palatinate back in exchange for giving Salzburg to Austria? Would it be possible for it to lose any more territory than it did IOTL?
How might this affect the territories everyone else receives in the Congress of Vienna?